Sanity check needed :
✢ If a term M is legal in λ2,
✢ And if a term N is also legal in the same context,
✢ Then MN is also legal, right?
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This seems intuitively obvious but I can't actually find a definition / lemma in my textbook to confirm it.
The Subterm Lemma seems to be the opposite of what I'm seeking. It says that if MN is legal, then the sub terms M and N are legal too.